
In the case of an inductor
A. voltage lags the current by $\dfrac{\pi }{2}$.
B. voltage leads the current by $\dfrac{\pi }{2}$.
C. voltage leads the current by $\dfrac{\pi }{3}$.
D. voltage leads the current by $\dfrac{\pi }{4}$.
Answer
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Hint: An inductor is a passive two terminal electrical device which stores energy in the magnetic field when electric current flows through it. The voltage applied across an inductor is equal to the self-induced emf across the inductor itself.
Complete step by step answer:
Inductor is a device which is meant to store energy when electric current flows through it.
According to the known principle that,
Voltage across an inductor$ = $ Self-induced emf across inductor
Let the voltage be $V$, self-induced emf be $L$ and change in current with time be $\dfrac{{dI}}{{dt}}$.Now,
$V = L\dfrac{{dI}}{{dt}} \\
\Rightarrow \dfrac{{dI}}{{dt}} = \dfrac{V}{L}$
In an inductor $V = {V_m}\sin \omega t$,
$\dfrac{{dI}}{{dt}} = \dfrac{{{V_m}\sin \omega t}}{L}$
Integrating the equation we get,
$\int {dI = \dfrac{{{V_m}}}{L}} \int {\sin \omega tdt} $
$ \Rightarrow I = - \dfrac{{{V_m}}}{{\omega L}}\cos \omega t + c - - - - - - \left( 1 \right)$
$c$ is the constant of integration and it is $0$.
As the $\cos $ component is in negative value so it is either in II or III quadrant.
Converting $\cos $ in terms of $\sin $ component by trigonometric property of $\cos x = \sin \left[ {\left( {2n + 1} \right)\dfrac{\pi }{2} \pm x} \right]$ in equation $\left( 1 \right)$ and we get,
$I = \dfrac{{{V_m}}}{{\omega L}}\sin \left( {\omega t - \dfrac{\pi }{2}} \right) - - - - - \left( 2 \right)$ , $c = 0$.
We must also keep an eye on the sign by using the quadrant concept. The given $\cos $ value here is negative and hence $\sin \left( {\omega t - \dfrac{\pi }{2}} \right)$ falls into IV quadrant which is also negative. Hence, there is no alternation in magnitude or sign.In terms of reactance we get,
${I_m} = \dfrac{{{V_m}}}{{\omega L}} = \dfrac{{{V_m}}}{{{X_L}}}$
where ${X_L}$ is the resistance offered by the inductor in the flow of A.C. and hence is known as inductive reactance. Thus, it is clear from equation $\left( 2 \right)$ that current through an inductor lags behind the voltage by $\dfrac{\pi }{2}$.
So, the correct option is A.
Note: It must be noted here that the constant of integration here is $0$ as the logic behind it is that current that flows in the circuit actually oscillates continuously and has no constant term. An ideal inductor has always zero resistance.
Complete step by step answer:
Inductor is a device which is meant to store energy when electric current flows through it.
According to the known principle that,
Voltage across an inductor$ = $ Self-induced emf across inductor
Let the voltage be $V$, self-induced emf be $L$ and change in current with time be $\dfrac{{dI}}{{dt}}$.Now,
$V = L\dfrac{{dI}}{{dt}} \\
\Rightarrow \dfrac{{dI}}{{dt}} = \dfrac{V}{L}$
In an inductor $V = {V_m}\sin \omega t$,
$\dfrac{{dI}}{{dt}} = \dfrac{{{V_m}\sin \omega t}}{L}$
Integrating the equation we get,
$\int {dI = \dfrac{{{V_m}}}{L}} \int {\sin \omega tdt} $
$ \Rightarrow I = - \dfrac{{{V_m}}}{{\omega L}}\cos \omega t + c - - - - - - \left( 1 \right)$
$c$ is the constant of integration and it is $0$.
As the $\cos $ component is in negative value so it is either in II or III quadrant.
Converting $\cos $ in terms of $\sin $ component by trigonometric property of $\cos x = \sin \left[ {\left( {2n + 1} \right)\dfrac{\pi }{2} \pm x} \right]$ in equation $\left( 1 \right)$ and we get,
$I = \dfrac{{{V_m}}}{{\omega L}}\sin \left( {\omega t - \dfrac{\pi }{2}} \right) - - - - - \left( 2 \right)$ , $c = 0$.
We must also keep an eye on the sign by using the quadrant concept. The given $\cos $ value here is negative and hence $\sin \left( {\omega t - \dfrac{\pi }{2}} \right)$ falls into IV quadrant which is also negative. Hence, there is no alternation in magnitude or sign.In terms of reactance we get,
${I_m} = \dfrac{{{V_m}}}{{\omega L}} = \dfrac{{{V_m}}}{{{X_L}}}$
where ${X_L}$ is the resistance offered by the inductor in the flow of A.C. and hence is known as inductive reactance. Thus, it is clear from equation $\left( 2 \right)$ that current through an inductor lags behind the voltage by $\dfrac{\pi }{2}$.
So, the correct option is A.
Note: It must be noted here that the constant of integration here is $0$ as the logic behind it is that current that flows in the circuit actually oscillates continuously and has no constant term. An ideal inductor has always zero resistance.
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